TACHYON PARTICLE
Hey this is my new post
It is really interesting....let's see
You surely have heard the name of Relativity of Albert Einstein . Most of the people thinks that it is said in relativity that no particle can have the speed more than light that is c=299 792 458 m/s
Instead of that it is written that no particle with speed less than light can gain more velocity than that of light. It reflects that if think of a particle which travells throughout the 3D space with a initial velocity more than c, it will be no longer impossible for existance of it
Actually the equations in relativity shows that particle with intial velocity < c will never get a final velocity > c. And samely if a particle has initial velocity > c it will never get the final velocity < c.
It seems akward, doesn't it? but yes, it's true . A particle with initial velocity greater than c will never get velocity lower than c .
With this theory scientist is researching for such particle as it can help us in making warp drive . You are surely thinking what warp drive is . I will tell you that in another post. By the way , the scientist named that particle Tachyon .
There are some strange nature of this
1. It will gain energy instead loosing if it increases its velocity. At ∞ velocity it will have ∞ energy.
2. It will have a imaginary mass in rest.
It means m0 = xi where x is variable and i is √-1. The derivation is→
m=m0/√{1-(v/c)²} ....................................(1)
here v>c. hence, the term. {1-(v/c)²} is negative
thus there will be a imaginary value in the denominator in LHS . Let it be v i
(here i refers to imaginary no.)
so the equation (1) can be written as
m=m0/vi
Now, the m is real no. due to its existance with normal mass when, v>c.
Thus m0 can be thought as a mass in rest with imaginary value because it have to cancel out the 'i' from denominator .
[ Let think the m0 = mi
hence m= mi/vi
= m/v (which is a real value). ]
HERE IS A CLIP FOR THIS. Click here
m=m0/√{1-(v/c)²} ....................................(1)
here v>c. hence, the term. {1-(v/c)²} is negative
thus there will be a imaginary value in the denominator in LHS . Let it be v i
(here i refers to imaginary no.)
so the equation (1) can be written as
m=m0/vi
Now, the m is real no. due to its existance with normal mass when, v>c.
Thus m0 can be thought as a mass in rest with imaginary value because it have to cancel out the 'i' from denominator .
[ Let think the m0 = mi
hence m= mi/vi
= m/v (which is a real value). ]
HERE IS A CLIP FOR THIS. Click here
It is a video uploaded from Vigyan tv India
Go see that channel in youtube. It's really good one (it uses hindi laguage).
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